EFFICIENT TEST SY0-701 TUTORIALS BRING YOU MARVELOUS STUDY SY0-701 DUMPS FOR COMPTIA COMPTIA SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION EXAM

Efficient Test SY0-701 Tutorials bring you Marvelous Study SY0-701 Dumps for CompTIA CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam

Efficient Test SY0-701 Tutorials bring you Marvelous Study SY0-701 Dumps for CompTIA CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam

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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Security Operations: This topic delves into applying common security techniques to computing resources, addressing security implications of proper hardware, software, and data asset management, managing vulnerabilities effectively, and explaining security alerting and monitoring concepts. It also discusses enhancing enterprise capabilities for security, implementing identity and access management, and utilizing automation and orchestration for secure operations.
Topic 2
  • General Security Concepts: This topic covers various types of security controls, fundamental security concepts, the importance of change management processes in security, and the significance of using suitable cryptographic solutions.
Topic 3
  • Security Program Management and Oversight: Finally, this topic discusses elements of effective security governance, the risk management process, third-party risk assessment, and management processes. Additionally, the topic focuses on security compliance requirements, types and purposes of audits and assessments, and implementing security awareness practices in various scenarios.
Topic 4
  • Security Architecture: Here, you'll learn about security implications across different architecture models, applying security principles to secure enterprise infrastructure in scenarios, and comparing data protection concepts and strategies. The topic also delves into the importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture.
Topic 5
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations: In this topic, you'll find discussions comparing threat actors and motivations, explaining common threat vectors and attack surfaces, and outlining different types of vulnerabilities. Moreover, the topic focuses on analyzing indicators of malicious activity in scenarios and exploring mitigation techniques used to secure enterprises against threats.

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q283-Q288):

NEW QUESTION # 283
A security analyst receives an alert from a corporate endpoint used by employees to issue visitor badges. The alert contains the following details:
Which of the following best describes the indicator that triggered the alert?

  • A. Account lockout
  • B. Concurrent session usage
  • C. Brute-force attack
  • D. Blocked content

Answer: C

Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:The activity described in the table, where multiple connection attempts are made on port
445 (used for SMB services), suggests a brute-force attack. The attacker likely used automated methods to guess credentials, causing multiple failures. Such attempts are ahallmark of brute-force attacks targeting shared resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Indicators of Malicious Activity".


NEW QUESTION # 284
While considering the organization's cloud-adoption strategy, the Chief Information Security Officer sets a goal to outsource patching of firmware, operating systems, and applications to the chosen cloud vendor.
Which of the following best meets this goal?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. Containerization
  • C. Private cloud
  • D. PaaS
  • E. laaS
  • F. Community cloud

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 285
Which of the following is used to protect a computer from viruses, malware, and Trojans being installed and moving laterally across the network?

  • A. ACL
  • B. EDR
  • C. IDS
  • D. NAC

Answer: B

Explanation:
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 2561


NEW QUESTION # 286
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?

  • A. Risk analysis
  • B. Risk tolerance
  • C. Risk register
  • D. Risk transfer

Answer: C

Explanation:
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test
1, Question 4.


NEW QUESTION # 287
Which of the following best explains a concern with OS-based vulnerabilities?

  • A. An exploit would give an attacker access to system functions that span multiple applications.
  • B. Exploitation of an operating system vulnerability is typically easier than any other vulnerability.
  • C. The OS vendor's patch cycle is not frequent enough to mitigate the large number of threats.
  • D. Most users trust the core operating system features and may not notice if the system has been compromised.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Operating system (OS) vulnerabilities can allow attackers to exploit system functions that affect multiple applications, leading to widespread compromise.
* B (patch cycle concerns) is valid but not the primary concern-many OS vendors provide regular patches.
* C (user trust in OS features) is a risk, but the more significant issue is that OS vulnerabilities often affect multiple system components.
* D (ease of exploitation) is not always true, as application and human-related vulnerabilities can be equally exploitable.
Thus, the main concern is that an OS exploit can impact multiple system functions, leading to broader security risks.


NEW QUESTION # 288
......

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